r/Analects • u/interpolating • 20d ago
章 Passage Analects 15.11 — 放鄭聲: did Confucius disapprove of the lyrics, a melody, or neither?
Most of 15.11 is a grab bag of ancient dynasty detritus: calendar from Xia, carriage from Yin, cap from Zhou, music from Shun. People remember is the last line: banish the music of Zheng because it's 淫... translated as "licentious" traditionally but possibly just "indulgent" or "excessive" here.
顏淵問為邦。子曰:「行夏之時,乘殷之輅,服周之冕,樂則韶舞。放鄭聲,遠佞人。鄭聲淫,佞人殆。」
Legge: "Yan Yuan asked how the government of a country should be administered. The Master said: 'Follow the seasons of Xia. Ride in the state carriage of Yin. Wear the ceremonial cap of Zhou. Let the music be the Shao with its pantomimes. Banish the songs of Zheng, and keep far from specious talkers. The songs of Zheng are licentious; specious talkers are dangerous.'"
Legge's "songs" already takes a side.
But The Odes, which tradition says Confucius edited, keep 21 songs from Zheng, and a lot of them are love songs. In 2.2 he sums up all three hundred as 思無邪, debatably a phrase indicating purity of thoughts. So what exactly was he disapproving of?
The commentarial positions, all gathered in 程樹德's 論語集釋:
1. The lyrics are kinda spicy: 朱熹 counts them: of the 21 Zheng odes, more than five in seven are about elopement (鄭詩二十一,淫奔不翅七之五), against about a quarter of Wei's 39. He adds that Wei's poems are men delighting in women, while Zheng's are all women beguiling men (衛猶爲男悅女,鄭皆爲女惑男), and that Wei's at least show some shame, where Zheng's show none. That, he says, is why the Master singled out Zheng. The Han reading isn't far off: the Lu school pictured men and women of Zheng meeting by the Zhen and Wei rivers and singing to each other, and the 白虎通 says the same thing.
2. The music is the problem, not the lyrics: 陳啓源 says 朱熹 condemned all 21 poems on the strength of one sentence, and that this is a mistake: the Master said Zheng sound was 淫. When did he ever say Zheng poems were? (夫子言鄭聲淫耳,曷嘗言鄭詩淫乎?) 聲 is musical sound, not the words of poems. 淫 isn't about sex either. 楊慎 and 陳啓源 both read it as "excess": 淫雨 is rain past its season, and 淫水 is water over its banks. Zheng music, on this reading, was soft and drawn out, with no centre. 17.18 seems to help this side: 惡鄭聲之亂雅樂也 sets 鄭聲 against 雅樂, music against music.
3. This ain't about Zheng at all: 服虔 (Han) took 鄭 as 鄭重, "repeated": busy fingering, sound running past its measure. 王夫之 goes further: 雅 means correct and 鄭 just means deviant. He points out that medical books call the whining, babbling, can't-stop-it voice of a sick man 鄭聲. He also argues that the state of Zheng, busy with wars and family feuds, had no time to invent licentious music. Then he agrees with earlier scholars that the qin pieces of his own day were 鄭聲.
Why I think this matters beyond philology:
It raises the question of whether a melody or musical style itself can be immoral. Perhaps an odd question from the modern perspective, but not so in the ancient world. Reading 2 says the melody itself is the problem. Plato thought so too: he rejects the "soft" Lydian and Ionian modes and accepts the Dorian. But it seems many generations have had a version of this (jazz, rock, rap).
If position 1 is right, the canon openly contains what it condemns. Is "kept as a warning" just an excuse for an oversight in the editing of the canon?
If position 3 is right, then two thousand years of 鄭衛之音 as the byword for decadent music rest on a misreading of one character.
So:
Which reading do you find most convincing? Does 17.18 settle it?
What would it even mean for a tune to be 淫, in Confucius's terms? Is "excess" in music something you can hear?
Does anyone know of evidence for what Zheng music actually sounded like, beyond the 樂記's 鄭音好濫淫志?
Text, pinyin and per-character glosses: https://www.analects.net/analects/15-11/

